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What Does Positive Pregnancy Test Inspite Of I Pill Usage Indicate?

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Posted on Wed, 7 May 2014
Question: Hi, if I had unprotected sex on the 31rst of March, he didn't orgasm, and I took the morning after pill 8 hrs later. Then proceeded with an at home pregnanc test 5 days later on April 5th and was positive. Was it the March 31rst encounter or one before that. Please explain.
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Answered by Dr. Nilaj Kumar Bagde (27 minutes later)
Brief Answer: Pregnancy occurred before 31 March Detailed Answer: Hello and welcome to HCM, I am Dr Nilajkumar a consultant gynecologist and I will be helping you in your queries. It takes about 3 weeks after sex [ or 1 week after the missed period] for the urine pregnancy test to come positive. The earliest test to come positive is a blood test and that too comes positive about 8-10 days after the pregnancy is conceived. So this pregnancy has most likely not resulted from the sexual episode on 31 March. Also from your query it seems that there was no ejaculation [ release of sperms]. If this was so then there are no chances of conceiving from that sexual act. So the conclusion is that pregnancy was already in place before 31st March. Hope this was helpful. Feel free to ask any further queries and I will be happy to help. Thanks for using HCM. Have a good day. Dr Nilajkumar Bagde Consultant Obstetrics and Gynecology
Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Raju A.T
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Follow up: Dr. Nilaj Kumar Bagde (6 minutes later)
Thank you so very much for getting back to me in a detailed message. I greatly appreciate that. What d you think the chances are it was before the 31rst? And do you think i have anything to worry about!?!
doctor
Answered by Dr. Nilaj Kumar Bagde (27 minutes later)
Brief Answer: Deatiled answer below. Detailed Answer: Hello and welcome, The chances that it occurred before 31st are 100% as there was no release of sperms on 31st and also the test came positive just after 5 days which is impossible. The only issue is if there are twins or molar pregnancy. even with these a urine test does not come positive in 5 days. So get an ultrasound to confirm the dates and determine when the pregnancy was conceived. The only concern is the use of I pill during pregnancy. This drug is category X meaning that the FDA has warned that it is not to be used during pregnancy as its effects on the baby are not known. However the other information available about the drug says that it is not likely to harm the baby as adverse effects on the baby have not been reported. So I advise that: if you continue the pregnancy then inform your doctor about the accidental intake of levonorgestrel and have a detailed TIFFA scan between 18-23 weeks to look for any anomalies in the baby. Apart from this I do not think that there are any issues. Just take a folic acid tablet daily and see your doctor as soon as possible. Hope this was helpful. Feel free for any further queries. Dr Nilajkumar.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Raju A.T
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Follow up: Dr. Nilaj Kumar Bagde (1 hour later)
What is a molar pregnancy?! When do u think conception was if last menstraul cycle was march 10th?! But you are 100 percent that it wasn't march 31rst?! Thank you.
doctor
Answered by Dr. Nilaj Kumar Bagde (7 hours later)
Brief Answer: Most likely it was not March 30 by calculations Detailed Answer: Hello and welcome, Molar pregnancy is a pregnancy where there is no baby or the baby is partially formed. Instead there are grape like tissues that secrete the pregnancy hormone HCG in large amounts. Hence the urine test that detects this hormone will come positive earlier. Same is with twins as there are 2 babies so the test comes positive early as the hormone is double than singleton pregnancy. At day 5 after conception the baby is not even attached properly to the mother. So levels of HCG hormone [ that rise after the attachment] are very low. Hence a urine test does not come positive. If the last period was on March 10, the likely date of ovulation was most likely around 24th March and pregnancy may have resulted at that time. However even by the 10th March calculations the test has come positive very early. It comes positive after 3 weeks from ovulation. So in your case it was positive within 2 weeks. Please check if the test that you used was a early pregnancy test, or answer early or any similar that detects HCG within 10-12 days [ very sensitive test, it may be mentioned on the pack how early that particular test detects]. If yes, then it is fine that the test was positive about 13 days past the ovulation date. Another issue is that on March 30 there was no release of sperm. So pregnancy is not possible if no sperms were released. An ultrasonography done now will help you in determining the dates. But even they are not 100% accurate. Still I advise you to get it done as soon as possible to recheck the dates as well as rule out twins and mole. So if we go by the test results, we can say that pregnancy occurred at least 8-10 days before the test was done, which is not March 10, and if we take into account the sperm release factor, it cannot occur on March 30. So the pregnancy most likely occurred before March 30 is the conclusion. Weather it occurred 1 week ago or 2 weeks ago or 4 weeks ago cannot be commented by these tests. Will need at least an ultrasound report for a better judgement. Hope this satisfied the query. Thanks for using HCM. Dr Nilajkumar
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Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Shanthi.E
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Dr. Nilaj Kumar Bagde

OBGYN

Practicing since :1999

Answered : 307 Questions

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What Does Positive Pregnancy Test Inspite Of I Pill Usage Indicate?

Brief Answer: Pregnancy occurred before 31 March Detailed Answer: Hello and welcome to HCM, I am Dr Nilajkumar a consultant gynecologist and I will be helping you in your queries. It takes about 3 weeks after sex [ or 1 week after the missed period] for the urine pregnancy test to come positive. The earliest test to come positive is a blood test and that too comes positive about 8-10 days after the pregnancy is conceived. So this pregnancy has most likely not resulted from the sexual episode on 31 March. Also from your query it seems that there was no ejaculation [ release of sperms]. If this was so then there are no chances of conceiving from that sexual act. So the conclusion is that pregnancy was already in place before 31st March. Hope this was helpful. Feel free to ask any further queries and I will be happy to help. Thanks for using HCM. Have a good day. Dr Nilajkumar Bagde Consultant Obstetrics and Gynecology