My boyfriend is tested positive for chlamydia yesterday and started taking doxycycline (twice daily) since then. He is asymptomatic and was detected during a routine annual physical. As a precaution, I have him called his physician to prescribe extra medicine for me through EPT, while waiting for response, I took one of his pills last night and this morning respectively. Not hearing back from his doctor, I called my own ObGyn and am put on a single dose azithromycin treatment (4 pills of 250mg each). I have a follow up appointment set in three weeks. Is it OK that I mix those two antibiotics as this? In addition, I am experiencing burning pain (no urinating pain), swelling and have tiny red bumps in the vulva and the opening of the vagina for several days. I have been tested every year in the past decades and always have negative results on Chlamydia, my last test is around Mid. Oct this year that is negative as well. Are those symptoms indicating an active and current infection? I also had urinating pain 2-3 weeks ago and some minor burning sensation in the vulva and the opening of the vagina, was that an infection, separate one or a precursor of the current one? My boyfriend stated that his last sexual encounter was about 2 years ago, unprotected and only happened once, prior to that, it was about 4 years ago. Could the bacteria remain dormant for that long, 2 years or 4 years? Could he get infected and become a carrier with just one sex encounter? What hind of role increased sexual activity will play in the manifesting of an infection? Many thanks! TG