Question: Does continued unprotected exclusive sexual contact between heterosexuals, when both parties are infected with HPV, cause any further damage or risk? To either party? As the male in this relationship I have been assigned the definitive blame or responsibility for our condition(s) because we have been active only together for 18 months. Her 2013 Pap smear didn't show the condition in her, but her recent 2014 did. Both of us have had multiple partners prior to our exclusive relationship in March 2013. Am I in fact the definitive source? If I am I am certainly ashamed, even though I have never infected (I checked with the 3 partners I had in the past 15 years, they at least "said" they didn't have nor had they ever had the condition) another partner and would have had no other way to know my condition. I am not trying to avoid or deflect my responsibility just need to know the facts. Emotionally I am devastated. Given the circumstance I am sure that unprotected sex with another partner would certainly expose them to increased risk. In fact even protected sex would do that right? Absent genital warts is semen the only transmitter of the virus from one to the other? As you can see I am not only shocked but very confused. For my mate and I to move forward, one way or another, with or without each other, some clarification of the facts would be greatly appreciated. I feel as though she may be the only sexual partner I couldn't hurt (or could?) if we stay together going forward. At this point I am certainly guilt ridden (perhaps I should be?) and feeling permanently damaged and forever isolated. I have never had genital warts and neither has she...
Any help you as a physician, can provide would be greatly appreciated. At some point I do need and expect to discuss your response and more with not just her, but our physicians (mine for sure...) Thank you, XXXXXXX