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Is it possible to get infected with HIV if either partner does not have infection? How does AIDS originate?

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HIV AIDS Specialist
Practicing since : 1974
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This is a generic question for my information so that it helps in life after marriage.How does AIDS originate,I mean is it possible to get infected if either parthners dont have this infection? What happens in case of people who are divorces who had intercourse multiple times for yeras and choose a diffrent partner (if they remarry) case can they ever have aids?
In case of a couple who are committed and have intercourse only between themselves is there any possiblity that they could have any sexual diseases ? Is condom required even between husband and wife who are commited?
Posted Sat, 22 Sep 2012 in HIV and AIDS
Answered by Dr. S. Murugan 5 hours later
Thank you for posting your query.

HIV/AIDS spreads by means of 4 routes.
1. SEXUAL- Male to female and male to male
2. Transfusion of blood and blood products
3. Needles and Syringes and other sharp instruments which have not been properly sterilized and during sharing( as in people who abuse drugs)
4. Mother to Child- Vertical transmission

Rarely among health personnel - occupational

No other way it could be transmitted. Sharing of utensils, toilets, hugging, toilets, swimming pool and mosquito bite and other insect bites are totally harmless.

So if a couple is faithful to each other, they will not have HIV/AIDS through sexual route. If one got through blood transfusion or sharing of needle, the other is also likely to get the same. At the same time a considerable proportion of a partner remain HIV free in spite of regular contact- called as Sero-discordant couple.

This is applicable also to other STDs. Yeast infection is likely to occur in between the faithful couple through sexual transmission to other when one suffers from Diabetes Mellitus.
Condom usage is not necessary in between if their relation is strictly monogamous.

In case of remarriage in case of divorce or loss of the partner, if the previous partner was having HIV/AIDS, then there is a chance for present partner got infected and likely to pass the infection to the new partner.

I hope that I have answered your questions. If you have further doubts feel free to ask me.
Dr S.Murugan

Above answer was peer-reviewed by
Follow-up: Is it possible to get infected with HIV if either partner does not have infection? How does AIDS originate? 12 hours later
Thanks Doctor,
So in case a person has sex with multiple partners without protection and assuming none of his partners have AIDS or other STD's then there is no chance he will get these diseases?
Answered by Dr. S. Murugan 2 hours later

Pleased to answer your query.

Yes of course. Theoretically what you are saying is correct. In case of sex contact with multiple partners who are free from any sort of STD or HIV, IT IS POSSIBLE FOR AN INDIVIDUAL TO REMAIN FREE OF any of STD or HIV. We have come across such fortunate individuals also at least for time being.

But this possibility is very, very meagre. Majority, who have multiple sex partners without protection, usually fall prey of one or other types of STDs. In case of multiple sex partners, the probability of STD / HIV free is very, very meagre chance. We can't rely on this.

So outside marriage protected sex is always safe.

Hope you got the point.

Dr. S. Murugan
Above answer was peer-reviewed by
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