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Can A Pap Smear Show False Results For Chlamydia?
Question: I have been to a doctor in the last week to have a pap smear and was told I have chlamydia. I have been with my husband for 9 years and have had several different tests during this time.. all negative readings. The last was when I was pregnant with my daughter in XXXXXXX 2013. I got the antibiotics and took it the day after. My husband has denied cheating and has been tested and we got the results back today.. they say negative. I am totally confused about the whole situation and how I could possibly have caught it?
Brief Answer:
It could be a false result in either one of you; can take up a repeat test
Detailed Answer:
Hello. Thank you for writing to us at healthcaremagic
I have gone through your query and I have understood it.
No test is 100% accurate.
There is a small chance for a test to be positive even when you don't have chlamydia. This is called a false positive test result.
It is also possible for a test may show negative even when you have chlamydia. This is called a false negative test result.
Both these type of false tests are rare but can explain why you got a different result from your sexual partner.
There is another possibility that your husband could have got infection from someone outside of marriage, gave it to you, then probably was prescribed antibiotics for some unrelated condition and that would have cleared it up.
The important thing is to get both yourself and your husband treated.
Both of you may take up a repeat test to rule out possibility of false tests.
Regards
It could be a false result in either one of you; can take up a repeat test
Detailed Answer:
Hello. Thank you for writing to us at healthcaremagic
I have gone through your query and I have understood it.
No test is 100% accurate.
There is a small chance for a test to be positive even when you don't have chlamydia. This is called a false positive test result.
It is also possible for a test may show negative even when you have chlamydia. This is called a false negative test result.
Both these type of false tests are rare but can explain why you got a different result from your sexual partner.
There is another possibility that your husband could have got infection from someone outside of marriage, gave it to you, then probably was prescribed antibiotics for some unrelated condition and that would have cleared it up.
The important thing is to get both yourself and your husband treated.
Both of you may take up a repeat test to rule out possibility of false tests.
Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
I have had 2 tests. Swab and Urine from 2 doctors as I was completely shocked and wanted reassurance this was a correct positive reading. He has only had the urine test which we got back today and it was negative. He has however had the treatment now as this was proscribed to him at the time of the test because his wife had a positive reading.
A few questions...
Can he get a blood test to show antibodies? Is there any way of knowing whether he has in fact had it and was treated with antibiotics?
If it is domant in your body do you still pass it on and does it still show positive in a test?
Is there anyway I could have had it for 9years and had multiple tests saying negative... unlikely I know but I am so utterly confused.
My husband did admit on having a prostitute rubbing her genitals past his face (no oral or sex) in January while overseas. At the time he did have a few antibiotic tablets as he got a tummy bug. Since then we have been in a regular sexual relationship so even if this is how he got it and gave it to me. Even if the antibotics cleared it up he would of been reinfected from me by now?
I also don't really understand how his test is negative when we have been having sex. If I have it how the hell doesn't he if we don't use condoms? How contagious is it?
Sorry for the long winded questions but I am getting mixed answers from hotlines
A few questions...
Can he get a blood test to show antibodies? Is there any way of knowing whether he has in fact had it and was treated with antibiotics?
If it is domant in your body do you still pass it on and does it still show positive in a test?
Is there anyway I could have had it for 9years and had multiple tests saying negative... unlikely I know but I am so utterly confused.
My husband did admit on having a prostitute rubbing her genitals past his face (no oral or sex) in January while overseas. At the time he did have a few antibiotic tablets as he got a tummy bug. Since then we have been in a regular sexual relationship so even if this is how he got it and gave it to me. Even if the antibotics cleared it up he would of been reinfected from me by now?
I also don't really understand how his test is negative when we have been having sex. If I have it how the hell doesn't he if we don't use condoms? How contagious is it?
Sorry for the long winded questions but I am getting mixed answers from hotlines
Brief Answer:
Genital chlamydia is only transmitted through sexual contact
Detailed Answer:
Hi.
Yes, there is a blood test to test for circulating chlamydia antibodies in serum but that is not commonly used as it may cross react with other chlamydial organisms which cause respiratory infection.
Most of the tests in recent times test for evidence of infection from local area rather than blood.
It will shoe in test even if it is dormant and can be passed on to sexual partners.
It is unlikely that this is a 9 year old infection and always went undetected.
If you have genital chlamydial infection you certainly have to get it from someone & if you have been sexually active only with your husband therefore most probably would have got it to from your sexual partner/ husband.
I am not sure about the kind of sexual contact (as you mention) that he probably had with a sex worker... whether it could have lead to chlamydial infection. Genital rubbing without any oral? cannot lead to chlamydial infection.
The reason that why did'nt you re-infect him is because not all sexual contacts would lead to transmission.
Another reason why one of the sexual partners is negative is because may be he was tested too early and would have shown a positive test if re-tested 2 weeks later.
Regards
Genital chlamydia is only transmitted through sexual contact
Detailed Answer:
Hi.
Yes, there is a blood test to test for circulating chlamydia antibodies in serum but that is not commonly used as it may cross react with other chlamydial organisms which cause respiratory infection.
Most of the tests in recent times test for evidence of infection from local area rather than blood.
It will shoe in test even if it is dormant and can be passed on to sexual partners.
It is unlikely that this is a 9 year old infection and always went undetected.
If you have genital chlamydial infection you certainly have to get it from someone & if you have been sexually active only with your husband therefore most probably would have got it to from your sexual partner/ husband.
I am not sure about the kind of sexual contact (as you mention) that he probably had with a sex worker... whether it could have lead to chlamydial infection. Genital rubbing without any oral? cannot lead to chlamydial infection.
The reason that why did'nt you re-infect him is because not all sexual contacts would lead to transmission.
Another reason why one of the sexual partners is negative is because may be he was tested too early and would have shown a positive test if re-tested 2 weeks later.
Regards
Note: Consult a Sexual Diseases Specialist online for further follow up- Click here.
Above answer was peer-reviewed by :
Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
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