Question: I have been exposed to HPV. Could you indicate if my understanding (following) is correct?
An infected/exposed person will not run the risk of infecting a partner by touching the partner with hands (anywhere is OK), or kissing them anywhere other than the mouth or genitalia.
An infected/exposed person does run the risk of infecting a partner by having intercourse, even with a condom, oral sex, or kissing on the mouth.

I have been exposed to HPV, the kind that presents itself in women as genital worts, so I want to confirm that this kind of strain does not cause cervical cancer.

I also have questions about several scenarios and whether they place an unexposed partner at risk of catching HPV. Is there a chance of spreading HPV if I the potentially infected person has saliva on my hands and then touches my uninfected partner's genitals? If I the potentially infected person have semen on my hand and my uninfected partner kisses my hand? If my uninfected partner touches my genitals and then touches her own?

Many thanks.

Thank you. I understand you to say that indeed the strains of HPV which cause cervical cancer are not the same ones that cause genital worts.

In response to my first question in the second paragraph of my question above, I understand you to say that the HPV virus is not carried in saliva. Am I correct in concluding that mouth to mouth kissing cannot transmit HPV? I am having trouble reconciling this with some medical opinions including an earlier conversation on this website that suggests that open mouth kissing can transmit the disease? If the saliva does not carry the virus, how is it that kissing can transmit the disease? Or can it?

Further, are you saying that if there is saliva on my (the infected party's) hands when I touch an uninfected partner's genitals, there is not a danger of transmitting the virus?

My other questions in paragraph two may not have been clear. I was not referencing contact with genital warts at the moment of sexual contact. I had had intercourse with a woman who later presented with genital warts. So I was definitely exposed to the virus, but before worts appeared. So let me recast those questions. If a male like me has been exposed to HPV with one woman in the recent past, and is interacting with a different partner who has not been exposed - is there a danger in exposing her to the virus if I the potentially infected person have semen on my hand and my uninfected partner kisses my hand? Or if my uninfected partner touches my (potentially infected) genitals and then touches her own?

It would be most helpful if you could respond to these questions each sequentially with a yes or no (and an explanation there really helps!); the earlier response required some interpretation and extrapolation on my part and I want to make sure I interpret absolutely correctly.

Many thanks.

Thank you. I still struggle with your answers as they do not directly address some of the specific questions I posed. Your answers do provide general guidance but I am having trouble applying them to my questions specifically. If you could answer each question specifically, I believe I would have a better understanding.

1. You indicate that kissing cannot transmit genital HPV. Kissing, with no genital contact during kissing, will not transmit genital HPV, is this correct?
2. Person A is a male who has been exposed to HPV in the recent past and may be able to transmit it. Person B is a female who has not been exposed to HPV. If Person A has his semen on his hands, and Person B kisses that hand, could the HPV be transmitted from Person A to Person B?
3. Same two people as in (2) above: Person A is a male who has been exposed to HPV in the recent past and may be able to transmit it. Person B is a female who has not been exposed to HPV. If Person B (the uninfected woman) touches Person A's genitals and then touches her own, is there a risk of transmitting HPV from Person A to Person B?

Many thanks. Answering each question, one at a time, will help me most understand.

Thank you.

In the case of question 1 above - I assume that oral HPV can be transmitted through kissing?

In the case of question 2 above - if HPV is not transmitted through semen, how is it transmitted?

Many thanks,

Nelson

If kissing does not transmit the genital HPV, then why does fellatio if the male is infected with HPV? I understand from numerous sources that fellatio can transmit HPV - and yet the receptors for genital HPV are not in the mouth. Not sure how to reconcile the two.

Also, if kissing does not transmit genital HPV, and the receptors for genital HPV are not in the mouth - can an infected male perform cunnilingus with an uninfected woman without transmitting HPV or putting the woman at risk?

Many thanks

Thank you for your response. I believe I understand the principle. To confirm that I have a proper understanding of how the principle actually applies in specific situations, could you answer yes or no (with explanation of course as is helpful) about the following scenarios?

1. An infected male who performs cunnilingus on an uninfected woman does not expose her to genital HPV.
2. An uninfected woman who performs fellatio on an infected males does expose herself to genital HPV. (If yes, how can this be if the woman's receptors for genital HPV are not located in the mouth?)

Many thanks.