Hello, my husband is 35 years old- had spinal fusion in 2000 after a car accident. They fused at L4-L5. I am trying to read his newest MRI scan and it says L4-5 anterior spondylolisthesis , disc bulging and facet hypertrophy causing posterolateral subarachnoid impingement. Does the subarchnoid impingment mean it is going into his spine?
Subarchnoid impingement in the report means the disc is impinging on the membrane that is surrounding the nerve. It does not necessarily mean the nerve is compressed. It is not clear from your description why this MRI was obtained. If L4-5 was fused in 2000 and fusion had been successful these all changes should not be seen. Whatever the MRI report if he is not having any symptoms you do not need to worry. The treatment decision will depend on his symptoms.
Wish him the best.
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Hi Thank you for your question. Subarchnoid impingement in the report means the disc is impinging on the membrane that is surrounding the nerve. It does not necessarily mean the nerve is compressed. It is not clear from your description why this MRI was obtained. If L4-5 was fused in 2000 and fusion had been successful these all changes should not be seen. Whatever the MRI report if he is not having any symptoms you do not need to worry. The treatment decision will depend on his symptoms. Wish him the best.