Question: My girlfriend had un-detected HPV at the time we became sexually active. Neither one of us has had sexual contact outside our relationship since we became active. We began using condoms when the HPV was detected. Based on my history it is impossible that the virus originated from me. I was told that there is no benefit to using a condom in our case by a family friend that is a nurse. Can you share your opinion on this topic?

I'm trying to get at whether or not a condom provides any benefit given the circumstance where neither of us are sexually active except with each other. We have no other sexual partners. It's clear that she tested positive in a routine screening during avisit to her OB GYN in 1 2018. Again, neither of us are sexually active outside of our relationship. We had sexual relations for 7 months (5/2017 - 1/2018) while she was infected with HPV. She had only one brief encounter in 6/2016 since she divorced in 2010. We believe that this was where she contracted HPV. We became sexually active in 5/2017. My last sexual encounter was 5 years prior with my wife of 12 years. She was routinely screened for HPV during annual visits to her OB GYN and was consistently negative. I believe that based on the 7 months of exposure to my girlfriend that tested positive for HPV in 1/2018, it's probably safe to assume that I am also infected. Since 1/2018 I have been using a condom and abstained from oral sex. Again, based on our specific circumstances, does the condom serve any purpose towards the virus running its course and going away. General research indicates "don't have sexual contact for a year and it will go away". If we are only having sexual contact with each other, un-protected, can we expect it to go away on its own as it would if we had no sexual contact? Can we spread it back and forth?

Is it reasonable to assume that since we had unprotected sex for 7 months while she was infected, I have contracted the HPV virus?