My husband & I married in 1987, I was 17 he was 19. We both had been with other partners before we married. After being married 2 or more years my husband told me I should go to the Doctor because he said that he thinks we may have something because whenever he would urinate his penis hurt/burned so I seen Doctor & I tested positive for chlamydia and they had my husband come in to be tested and he also was positive. Since he had symptoms & I didn't did he cheat on me or could one of us got it before we were married and symptoms didn't show up for 2 or more years later? I read that IF a person has symptoms it will show up between 1~4 weeks of having sex with someone that has chlamydia is that true? I know it's been about 20 years ago that this happened, but I often wonder about this. Please give me information on this, thank you.