45 year-old male gets first armpit abscess and has it lanced at urgent care or ER because it was painful and his arm was swollen (he had said it was a spider bite). 5 1/2 months prior to this he had a pinkeye that would not go away for 3 wks and had 2 opthalmologists visits, 1 urgent care visit and 1 ER visit for it to go away (with steroids and Moxeza). The prostitute had something wrong with her eye 3-4 weeks prior to his ordeal. He has been with one prostitute for almost 2 years and she is now 24 years-old. She is an IV Heroin user. He says he has always used a condom. He says he has never used IV drugs (think that is the truth). Coincidence? Or, are there ways to transfer certain STDs that would cause some of the issues he has had?