Brief Answer: risk low Detailed Answer: HI, thanks for using healthcare magic Oral herpes is caused by herpes simplex 1 predominantly whereas genital herpes is associated with herpes simplex 2. Because of oral intercourse sometimes herpes 2 is seen in the mouth area and herpes 1 in the genitalia. Your oral herpes , however, is likely herpes 1,since this is what is most common. Herpes 1, is in over 50 % of persons. Some persons may have this virus though they do not have any symptoms , this means it is possible that your partner may also silently have this virus. In terms of risk of transmission, though herpes can be transmitted when a person has no symptoms,the risk is lower especially with herpes 1. One study looked at persons for 691 days and herpes 1 was only shed in 12% of these days and only for 24 hours at a time.I can give the name of the study if you wish. This means there is a only very slight risk of transmission during oral intercourse.This would be reduced with the valtrex. Normally oral anti virals such as valtrex are used to suppress genital not oral herpes because most persons already have it even if they don't know it. An option would be for your partner to be evaluated for herpes 1, to see if he already has it. summary- the risk of transmission is small but present. The two of you would have to assess how much of a risk you are willing to take. I hope this helps, feel free to ask any other questions

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