Hello. I am 38 year old female with diagnosis's of galactorrhea, tinnitus and history of histoplasmosis as a child, take no medications who had RLQ rebound discomfort intermittent nausea and was sent to the ER for possible appendicitis; had CBC, CMP, U/A C&S, and CAT Scan, all labs were normal but CAT scan showed inflammation in the terminal illieum. Was put on Endocort three times day for 10 days; Flagyl 500mg two times per day for 7 days and Cipro 500mg two times per day for 10 days; 72 hours after the ER visit I had a colonoscopy and was found that there was inflammation in the terminal illieum and that there was a stricture, was unable to get scope inside the TI to look (including pediatric scope) doctor was able to get biopsy forceps inside and took biopsies. I received a letter from the MD office that states that the "pathology findings are consistent with Crohn's disease". I am a little taken back with the diagnosis as I have no symtoms of Crohn's and my labs are all normal. Does the pathology always say "consitent with" or does it sometimes say "diagnosis of"?? I am wondering if it is "consistent with Crohn's" couldn't it also be "consistent with" other stuff?