Female patient 50 denies ever having HSV 1/2 had a non-descript abrassion on the right labia majora that became swollen but never erythemic or herpetic lesions; post cunnilingus two days in a row, previously being abstinent for ten years. Her GYN treated her for a UTI with urinalysis only, no C&S, and treated her for yeast inf without clear indication nor vaginal discharge. He has now changed Bactrim DS to Macrobid. A swab came back HSV1. Valcyclovir was started. Her partner, 55, had 1 HSV lesion at age 18. Is he the likely cause of both the UTI and saliva transmission of HSV1?