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What is the incubation period for HPV warts?

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Posted on Mon, 16 May 2016
Question: Hi i had condom protected oral sex performed on me 2 years ago and condom protected hand job performed on me 10 months ago. These events were performed on me by a stripper(sex worker). I have tested negative for stds. I am worried about hpv and Hpv wart formation. Was I at risk? What is the incubation period for hpv warts? Could I have passed hpv onto my wife from these exposures.
Thank you
doctor
Answered by Dr. Kakkar S. (19 minutes later)
Brief Answer:
No risk of Hpv

Detailed Answer:
Hello. Thank you for writing to us

I am Dr. Kakkar (Dermatologist and Venereologist).

Genital HPV is commonly caused by HPV types 6,11. The virus is acquired by either direct skin to skin heterosexual contact or rarely through unprotected ora-genital sex from a partner with oral warts.

However there is no risk of HPV if the oral sex was protected because a condom would serve as a barrier for direct sexual contact. Secondly, a handjob whether protected or unprotected is absolutely safe in terms of risk of transmitting HPV.

The incubation period between HPV infection and development of genital warts is variable varying between a few days to 18-20 months after infection.

Let me know if you're having any further queries..

Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Arnab Banerjee
doctor
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Follow up: Dr. Kakkar S. (12 minutes later)
Thank you. Is there any risk of acquiring the hpv types that are high risk for cervical cancer and passing this onto my wife?
If my wife were to have a positive pap smear would it be the result of these 2 exposures?
doctor
Answered by Dr. Kakkar S. (9 minutes later)
Brief Answer:
No risk of high risk genital hpv in you or wife through these particular ac

Detailed Answer:
Hi.

No. There is no risk of acquiring high risk genital HPV types through an act of protected oral sex or a hand job. So, there is no question of you passing it further on to your wife. If your wife were to develop a postive Pap smear it us certainly not because of these 2 incidents

Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Arnab Banerjee
doctor
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Follow up: Dr. Kakkar S. (21 minutes later)
Thank you. So no risk of developing warts at this point in time? With oral sex could they develop on the scrotum if there was no contact with the scrotum? If oral fluids were to end up on the scrotum, ie dripping down, does this present a risk for acquiring Hpv or does it need to be massaged in? Is there a correlation between having genital hpv and oral warts? You mention that the person performing oral sex would have to have oral warts to pass it on, so if no wart then it can't be passed on?
doctor
Answered by Dr. Kakkar S. (7 hours later)
Brief Answer:
Scrotal skin would'nt be infected just by contact with infectious secretion

Detailed Answer:
Hi.

No risk of developing warts from these 2 incidents. Intact scrotal skin is much more resistant as compared to genital mucosa and theoretically speaking a wart would develop only if it gets a chance to innoculate in epidermis through rubbing or scratching (because it has to innoculate in to the basal layer of epidermis).
Oral warts can form due to oro-genital sex (performing oral sex on an individual with genital warts/ Hpv infection) and are caused by the same Hpv types which cause genital warts i.e 6 and 11.
No, if there are no warts in oral mucosa, Hpv cannot be passed on through oral sex to genitalia (baring, though rarely, if there is a subclinical Hpv infection). You anyways don't have to worry about this route because you had a protected sex!! so there was no direct contact between her oral mucosa and your genitalia.

Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Deepak
doctor
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Follow up: Dr. Kakkar S. (8 hours later)
Thank you. So for summary. I had no risk, 0 chance 100%,guarantee of acquiring Hpv or hpv warts from these events? I am outside the window of acquiring Hpv warts by this time I have heard that they could develop years later is that true or is 20 months the maximum time frame? Finally, 100%,certainty that I have not passed hpv to my wife and that any positive pap smear would not be due to these 2 events?
doctor
Answered by Dr. Kakkar S. (15 hours later)
Brief Answer:
There i no risk either to you or your wife, due to these 2 incidents

Detailed Answer:
Hi.

Yes. there is 0% chance that you could have got Hpv through any of these instances and thereby a 100% certainty of not having passed Hpv to your wife as a consequence of these 2 incidents. Twenty months is the maximum time frame or the upper limit between acquiring infection and before one could develop warts.

Regards
Above answer was peer-reviewed by : Dr. Chakravarthy Mazumdar
doctor
Answered by
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Dr. Kakkar S.

Dermatologist

Practicing since :2002

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What is the incubation period for HPV warts?

Brief Answer: No risk of Hpv Detailed Answer: Hello. Thank you for writing to us I am Dr. Kakkar (Dermatologist and Venereologist). Genital HPV is commonly caused by HPV types 6,11. The virus is acquired by either direct skin to skin heterosexual contact or rarely through unprotected ora-genital sex from a partner with oral warts. However there is no risk of HPV if the oral sex was protected because a condom would serve as a barrier for direct sexual contact. Secondly, a handjob whether protected or unprotected is absolutely safe in terms of risk of transmitting HPV. The incubation period between HPV infection and development of genital warts is variable varying between a few days to 18-20 months after infection. Let me know if you're having any further queries.. Regards