What does "L3/34 shallow based disc bulge with no neural compromise" mean?
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A recent MRI is showing L3/34 shallow based disc bulge with no neural compromise and L//S1 broadbased disc bulge with a superimposed inferiourly directed central disc protusion. The discs abuts and mildly defors the anterior margin of the secal sac with no neural compromise. Are you able to determine from this reading if the cause of this - taking into consideration I suffered no back pain or restriction in motion and moved freely at will prior to a chirpractic treatment - could the treatment itself haved caused this sudden onset situation as described by MRI? I note I suffered immediately after treatment, returning to chirpractor the very next day - when I received a further adjustment, and 5 times more receiving a mix of different chriopractic treatment as I was referred to offsiders within the practice, and have continued to suffer pain and limited mobility now for 6 weeks since treatment. Thank you.
Posted Thu, 20 Feb 2014 in Back Pain
Answered by Dr. Praveen Tayal 17 minutes later
Brief Answer: Can be due to the treatment. Detailed Answer: Hello, Thanks for posting your query. The mild disc bulge that you are having with no neural compromise can be due to a muscle spasm in the lower back due to a wrong posture; sudden jerk in the area or due to the chiropractic treatment that you have underwent. Such a minor change can be due to age related degenerative changes of the spine also. The main treatment of such problem is bed rest along with pain killers and muscle relaxants. Muscle relaxants can help with your symptoms if used in appropriate dosage in combination with a potent analgesic. You can get these prescribed from your orthopedician. Local analgesic gels and hot fomentation may provide a short term relief. You can use analgesic gels like Volini gel. Exercise is not advisable in the times of acute pain. Using an LS contour belt of appropriate size might be helpful in providing support to back muscles. Physiotherapy also plays a major role in treating such conditions. Epidural steroid injections have been used if oral pain killers are not very effective. Discuss with your orthopedician and an appropriate treatment can be planned depending on the response to medical drugs. I hope this answers your query. In case you have additional questions or doubts, you can forward them to me, and I shall be glad to help you out. Wishing you good health. Regards. Dr. Praveen Tayal. For future query, you can directly approach me through my profile URL http://bit.ly/Dr-Praveen-Tayal
Follow-up: What does "L3/34 shallow based disc bulge with no neural compromise" mean? 9 minutes later
The 'findings' typed on MRI advise Grade 1 retrolisthesis of L5 and S1 with gentle lumbar curvature convex to the left. Alignment otherwise normal. There is desiccation of the L3/4 and L5 S/1. My concern is following the chriospractor treatment (where chiropractor turned me on my side, pulled my top leg up and over bent and then came down on top of my body with his body weight), My left leg was turned in towards my right with my left foot 'pigeon toed' (not normal for me). Is the curvature convex to the left also likely caused by chiro treatment and can he fix this?
Answered by Dr. Praveen Tayal 26 minutes later
Brief Answer: No. Detailed Answer: Hello. Thanks for writing again. The overstretching of the leg can cause a muscle sprain or a minor disc bulge but this is not likely to cause the lumbar curve convex to the left. It is best not to indulge in chiropractic treatment and consult an orthopedician for proper prescription medicines. Hope my answer is helpful. If you do not have any clarifications, you can close the discussion and rate the answer. Wish you good health. Regards