Question: i had been referred to a obgyn oncologist due to the return of abnormal cells after a leep. when he looked over my labs and biopsy that my obgyn did he was surprised that she even referred me to him and he said i definitely did not have cancer and that he would just take a look and i could be on my way. when he looked he then decided to do another pap smear (the last one was only a month prior from my regular obgyn) because he said that he saw some foci that he wanted to just look at and make sure i got back to a base line. i didn't know what that meant but he said i didn't have cancer so i was satisfied. he was supposed to call me with the results of the pap smear and said i did not have to come back in. he never called so i called him about a month later and he called back telling me that the pap came back as hpv negative and and he wanted to see me in about 2 months again. but, i didn't really ask any questions because i really wanted to get a referral for a new obgyn and that was my main question but then he said he would talk about a referral on my next visit.

so.....here are my questions

1) what are "foci" that he saw when he examined me and what would be the reason to do a pap at that point when he hadn't planned on it and he told me i did not have cancer?

2) just because my pap came back hpv negative doesn't mean it was normal is that correct? i didn't ask that but realized that later because my last pap 2 months ago came back with abnormal cells but hpv negative

3) what would be the reason for seeing him (an oncolgist) again after only 3 months if i don't have cancer and he said he wasn't worried about me developing cancer?

i am starting to realize that i have not asked enough questions.

finally, for some background information, my husband of 17 years is the only person i have ever been with in fact the only person i have ever kissed. and regardless to what any one may think based on this situation he is and has always been faithful and only had one other girlfriend before me.

lastly, since we got married i have been prone to uti's and or bladder infections and often "cure" them by taking azo's right after sex and/or use and antibiotic that i never finished (i know i shouldn't do that) but i have to at least take azo's right after or it turns into an infection without fail. this has been for many years.

final questions: could this infection problem be related to the hpv/dysplasia situation in anyway. i went from all perfect pap smears for decades to CIN 2/3 a year ago christmas in only about a year.

doesn't that seem unusual?

please give me any information and help you can.

p.s. again, i know my situation with my husband seems unusual based on what i have read but can you please respond as if it is true scenario (because it is) and i don't want to hear about that not being a possibility. i am not naive. i just need factual information. i always seem to fall out of the normal range of everything medically and it looks like i do here as well.

thanks,

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